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Lord North(s) question
20 Dec 2006 12:23:55 -0800
alt.talk.royalty
previous
bxzi...
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The heir to the Earl of Guilford is Lord North. There is also a Barony
of North (abeyant since 1942).
My question is this: If the Barony came out of abeyance, how would one
differentiate (title wise) between the 2 Lord Norths?
Peter Tilman...
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The Earls of Guilford could do what the Earls of Huntingdon have done and
style the heir Viscount North.
Otherwise there generally wouldn't be a way (not that that would be a
particularly unacceptable situation).
Graham Truesdale...
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As far as I can see, this was an issue pre-1942. My 1939 Burke's shows
the substantive peer as 'Baron North' and the courtsy one as 'Lord North'
but doesn't say how they were distinguished.
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Brooke
bxzi@yahoo.com
Julius...
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One would have a courtesy title [the heir to Earl Guilford] and would
be a commoner. The other would have a substantive peerage title: Baron
North (of Kirtling Tower).
sionevar...
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But in day to day speech when referring to either person, how would you
distinguish between them? Would you call Baron North just that instead of
Lord North?
Stan Brown...
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Nope -- in day to day speech there's nothing to distinguish a
substantive peer from a courtesy peer of the same grade.
Julius...
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Couldn't one be referred to as Lord North and the other be called
Lord North of Kirtling Tower just to differentiate the two in
conversation?
Turenne...
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It would be a bit awkward, you don't refer to someone in conversation
as John Smith, you simply say 'John' or 'Mr Smith'. Anyway, there are a
couple Baron Archers, you wouldn't want to keep referring to the one
with the criminal conviction as Lord Archer of Weston-Super-Mare whilst
in conversation with him.
Richard Lichten
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